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Exam Code: NSE4 Questions and answers

Exam Name: Fortinet Network Security Expert 4 Written Exam (400)

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NO.1 Which two methods are supported by the web proxy auto-discovery protocol (WPAD) to
automatically learn the URL where a PAC file is located? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP
B. IPv6 autoconfiguration
C. BOOTP
D. DNS
Answer: A,D

NSE4 Questions and answers Real Dumps   

NO.2 A DLP rule with an action of Exempt has been matched against traffic passing through the
FortiGate unit. Which of the following statements is correct regarding how this transaction will be
handled by the FortiGate unit?
A. Any other matched DLP rules will be ignored with the exception of Archiving.
B. Future files whose characteristics match this file will bypass DLP scanning.
C. The traffic matching the DLP rule will bypass antivirus scanning.
D. The client IP address will be added to a white list.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following components are contained in all FortiGate units from the FG50 models
and up? (Select all that apply.)
A. Hard Drive.
B. FortiASIC content processor.
C. Serial console port.
D. Gigabit network interfaces.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 The ordering of firewall policies is very important. Policies can be re-ordered within the
FortiGate Web Config and also using the CLI. The command used in the CLI to perform this function is
__________.
A. edit policy
B. set order
C. reorder
D. move
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following items is NOT a packet characteristic matched by a firewall service
object?
A. TCP/UDP source and destination ports
B. TCP sequence number
C. IP protocol number
D. ICMP type and code
Answer: B

NO.6 How is traffic routed onto an SSL VPN tunnel from the FortiGate unit side?
A. Assignment of an IP address causes a host route to be added to the FortiGate routing table.
B. The FortiGate adds a route based upon the destination address in the SSL VPN firewall policy.
C. A route back to the client is automatically created on the FortiGate to match the SSLVPN IP pool
from which the IP address assignment was made.
D. A static route must be configured by the administrator using the ssl.root interface as the outgoing
interface.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Each UTM feature has configurable UTM objects such as sensors, profiles or lists that define
how the feature will function.
An administrator must assign a set of UTM features to a group of users.
Which of the following is the correct method for doing this?
A. Enable a set of unique UTM features under "Edit User Group".
B. When defining the UTM objects, the administrator must list the user groups which will use the
UTM object.
C. The administrator must apply the UTM features directly to a user object.
D. The administrator must enable the UTM features in an identify-based policy applicable to the user
group.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two web filtering inspection modes inspect the full URL? (Choose two.)
A. Flow-based.
B. DNS-based.
C. Proxy-based.
D. URL-based.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which antivirus and attack definition update options are supported by FortiGate units?
(Choose two.)
A. Pull updates from the FortiGate.
B. Manual update by downloading the signatures from the support site.
C. execute fortiguard-AV-AS command from the CLI.
D. Push updates from a FortiAnalyzer.
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Which of the following is an advantage of using SNMP v3 instead of SNMP v1/v2 when
querying the FortiGate unit?
A. Running SNMP service on a non-standard port is possible
B. MIB-based report uploads
C. SNMP access limits through access lists
D. Packet encryption
Answer: D

NO.11 By default the Intrusion Protection System (IPS) on a FortiGate unit is set to perform which
action?
A. Allow all traffic.
B. Block all network attacks.
C. Allow and log all traffic.
D. Block the most common network attacks.
Answer: A

NSE4 Questions and answers Real Questions   

NO.12 What functions can the IPv6 Neighbor Discovery protocol accomplish? (Choose two.)
A. Determine other nodes reachability.
B. Auto-adjust the MTU setting.
C. Autoconfigure addresses and prefixes.
D. Negotiate the encryption parameters to use.
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 A FortiClient fails to establish a VPN tunnel with a FortiGate unit.
The following information is displayed in the FortiGate unit logs:
msg="Initiator: sent 192.168.11.101 main mode message #1 (OK)" msg="Initiator: sent
192.168.11.101 main mode message #2 (OK)" msg="Initiator: sent 192.168.11.101 main mode
message #3 (OK)" msg="Initiator: parsed 192.168.11.101 main mode message #3 (DONE)"
msg="Initiator: sent 192.168.11.101 quick mode message #1 (OK)" msg="Initiator: tunnel
192.168.1.1/192.168.11.101 install ipsec sa" msg="Initiator: sent 192.168.11.101 quick mode
message #2 (DONE)" msg="Initiator: tunnel 192.168.11.101, transform=ESP_3DES, HMAC_MD5"
msg="Failed to acquire an IP address
Which of the following statements is a possible cause for the failure to establish the VPN tunnel?
A. The phase 1 configuration on the FortiGate unit uses Aggressive mode while FortiClient uses Main
mode.
B. There is a mismatch between the FortiGate unit and the FortiClient IP addresses in the phase 2
settings.
C. An IPSec DHCP server is not enabled on the external interface of the FortiGate unit.
D. There is no IPSec firewall policy configured for the policy-based VPN.
Answer: C

NSE4 Questions and answers Practice Exam   

NO.14 Bob wants to send Alice a file that is encrypted using public key cryptography.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of public key cryptography in this
scenario?
A. Bob will use his public key to encrypt the file and Alice will use Bob's private key to decrypt the file.
B. Bob will use his private key to encrypt the file and Alice will use her private key to decrypt the file.
C. Bob will use his public key to encrypt the file and Alice will use her private key to decrypt the file.
D. Bob will use Alice's public key to encrypt the file and Alice will use her private key to decrypt the
file.
Answer: D

NO.15 Review the output of the command config router ospf shown in the Exhibit below; then answer
the question following it.
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding this output?
A. OSPF Hello packets will be sent on all interfaces of the FortiGate device.
B. OSPF Hello packets will only be sent on interfaces configured with the IP addresses
172.16.1.1 and 172.16.1.2.
C. OSPF Hello packets are not sent on point-to-point networks.
D. OSPF Hello packets will be sent on all interfaces configured with an address matching the
10.0.1.0/24 and 172.16.0.0/12 networks.
Answer: D

NO.16 Which IPsec configuration mode can be used for implementing GRE-over-IPsec VPNs?.
A. Policy-based only.
B. Route-based only.
C. Either policy-based or route-based VPN.
D. GRE-based only.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which statement correctly describes the output of the command diagnose ips anomaly list?
A. Lists the errors captured when compiling the DoS policy.
B. Lists the IPS signature matches.
C. Lists the configured DoS policy.
D. List the real-time counters for the configured DoS policy.
Answer: D

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NO.18 When viewing the Banned User monitor in Web Config, the administrator notes the entry
illustrated in the exhibit.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding this entry?
A. This entry displays a ban entry that was added manually by the administrator on June11th.
B. The entry displays a ban that was triggered by HTTP traffic matching an IPS signature.
This client is banned from receiving or sending any traffic through the FortiGate.
C. The entry displays a ban that has been added as a result of traffic triggering a configured DLP rule.
D. The entry displays a quarantine, which could have been added by either IPS or DLP.
Answer: C

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NO.1 What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Warning, reactive, proactive
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, scheduled, normal
D. Informational, warning, exception
Answer: D

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NO.2 Consider the following list:
1.Change authority
2.Change manager
3.Change advisory board (CAB)
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?
A. Functions
B. Teams
C. Roles, people or groups
D. Job descriptions
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data
centre?
A. Service desk
B. Technical management
C. Application management
D. Facilities management
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Service portfolio management
B. Continual service improvement
C. Supplier management
D. Change management
Answer: C

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NO.5 What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
A. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
B. Governance
C. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
D. The value of a service
Answer: D

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NO.6 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service
be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
C. Service operation: IT operations management
D. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following BEST describes partners'in the phrase people, processes, products and
partners"?
A. The facilities management function
B. Internal departments
C. Customers
D. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and
dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service level management
C. Service transition
D. Demand management
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Processes
C. Components
D. The end-to-end service
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?
A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group
C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular
basis?
A. The supplier management
B. The service catalogue management
C. The IT service continuity management
D. The service level management
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1.Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2.Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above
Answer: B

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NO.13 Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to
proprietaryknowledge?
A. Proprietaryknowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
B. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often
undocumented
C. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
D. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
Answer: B

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NO.14 The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. Any disruptionto service whether planned or unplanned
C. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is
impacted or not
Answer: C

NO.15 Which of the following are reasons why ITILis successful?
1.ITIL is vendor neutral
2.It does not prescribe actions
3.ITIL represents best practice
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Answer: D

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NO.17 Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
A. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration
management
B. Change management, capacity management event management, service request management
C. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request
fulfillment
D. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment
management
Answer: D

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NO.18 A process owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following
would be expected of them?
A. Manage an activity
B. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
C. Perform an activity
D. Be kept up-to-date onthe progress of an activity
Answer: D

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NO.19 The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of
understanding within knowledge management?
A. Governance
B. Information
C. Data
D. Knowledge
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
A. Functions
B. Roles
C. Metrics
D. Inputs and outputs
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CWNA-106 Exam Prep

Exam Name: Certified Wireless Network Administrator

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NO.1 What component of the 802.11 standard allows stations to reserve access to the RF medium for
a specified period of time?
A. Short guard intervals
B. Listen Interval
C. DTIM Interval
D. Probe Request frames
E. RTS or CTS frames
Answer: E

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NO.2 In WLAN security, which authentication methods always create Layer 2 dynamic encryption
keys? (Choose 2)
A. WPA2-PSK
B. Shared Key
C. EAP-TLS
D. HTTPS Captive Portal
E. WEP
F. TKIP
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 When replacing the antenna of a WLAN device with a similar antenna type that has a higher
passive gain, what antenna characteristic will decrease?
A. Receive sensitivity
B. Range
C. Fresnel Zone size
D. Active gain
E. Beam width
Answer: E

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NO.4 As a station moves away from the access point to which it is associated, it changes its data rate
from 600 Mbps to 540 Mbps and then to 450 Mbps.
What IEEE 802.11 term is used to describe this functionality?
A. Modulation and Coding Selection
B. Adaptive Rate Management
C. Multirate Control
D. Rate Set Selectivity
E. Dynamic Rate Switching
Answer: E

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NO.5 What statements accurately describe the RF cables and connectors that are used in an 802.11
WLAN system? (Choose 3)
A. Large diameter RF cables cause greater loss than small diameter cables.
B. Every RF connector causes insertion loss.
C. 75 and 125 ohms are the typical impedances of 802.11 WLAN connectors.
D. Two RF connectors of the same type (e.g. SMA), manufactured by different companies, may vary in
specifications.
E. RF cables have upper and lower frequency range specifications.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.6 Prior to association, what parameter can 802.11 client devices measure and use to select the
optimal access point for association?
A. Proximity to potential access points
B. Signal strength of access point beacons received
C. Average round trip time to reach the IP router
D. Retry rate of probe request and response frames
E. Average round trip time to reach the Internet DNS server
Answer: B

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NO.7 What statement about 802.3-2012, Clause 33 Power over Ethernet is true?
A. Only midspan PSEs are supported.
B. By using CAT3 cabling, you can increase the maximum draw available to the PD.
C. Up to 30 watts of power may be provided through an Ethernet cable.
D. Only endpoint PSEs are supported.
E. When using CAT5 cabling, you decrease the maximum draw available to the PD.
Answer: C

CWNA-106 Exam Prep Test Questions   

NO.8 In a single channel architecture (SCA) WLAN system, 802.11n (HT) APs should not share an SSID
with 802.11g (ERP) APs.
What is the reason for this recommendation?
A. Beacons from 802.11n APs use 40 MHz channels, while beacons from 802.11g APs use 20 MHz
channels.
B. Client stations would see two different sets of AP capabilities as they roam between APs with the
same BSSID.
C. The added range of 802.11n APs would cause additional co-channel interference.
D. The additional beacon material in 802.11n beacons would confuse 802.11b/g client stations.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What answers correctly complete the following sentence?
____________ and ____________ carrier sense functions are used to determine if the wireless
medium is busy. (Choose 2)
A. Backoff
B. Active
C. Physical
D. Interframe
E. Virtual
F. Vector
G. Pseudo-random
Answer: C,E

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NO.10 You were previously onsite at XYZ's facility to conduct a pre-deployment RF site survey. The
WLAN has been deployed according to your recommendations and you are onsite again to perform a
post-deployment validation survey.
When performing this type of post-deployment RF site survey for VoWiFi, what are two steps that
must be performed? (Choose 2)
A. Spectrum analysis to locate and identify RF interference sources
B. Coverage analysis to verify appropriate coverage and roaming boundaries
C. Application analysis with an active phone call on a VoWiFi handset
D. Frequency-band hopping analysis to detect improper RF channel implementations
E. Protocol analysis to discover channel use on neighboring APs
Answer: B,C

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NO.1 Which of the following characteristics is generally found on a docking station that port
replicators do not offer?
A. Docks generally do not need separate power to function.
B. Replicators usually have more USB ports than docks.
C. Replicators have additional NIC that docks lack.
D. Docks have independent hardware that replicators lack.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following display technologies provides the BEST range of visible colors?
A. OLED
B. CRT
C. LCD
D. Plasma
Answer: A

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NO.3 A technician wants to install a secondary IDE drive which will be configured for additional user
storage on the same IDE channel of the drive with the operating system. Which of the following
jumper configurations should the technician use for the additional drive, if the drive with the
operating system is set to MA?
A. Place a jumper on both the MA and CS jumper block of the secondary drive.
B. Place a jumper on both the SL and CS jumper block of the secondary drive.
C. Place a jumper on the SL jumper block of the secondary drive.
D. Place a jumper on the MA jumper block of the secondary drive.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A technician replaces a failed hard drive with a brand new one.
The technician boots from a PE CD and attempts to install a custom OS build deployed from the
network.
The hard drive is visible in the system's BIOS.
However, once in the preinstallation environment, the drive is not recognized in the imaging process
and the process fails.
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of failure?
A. The hard drive has not been partitioned correctly.
B. The PC's power supply is not providing enough power to the new hard drive.
C. The boot CD has failed and needs to be replaced.
D. The hard drive needs to have its configuration manually defined in the BIOS.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A user creates a file in presentation software to be shown on a widescreen display. The user
would like to adjust the aspect ratio of the slides in the presentation software so they display without
extra black areas on the top, bottom, left, or right of the slides. Which of the following aspect ratios
would BEST meet this requirement?
A. 16:9
B. 4:3
C. 256:135
D. 5:4
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following Internet connection types is known to have a significantly higher
latency than the others?
A. Satellite
B. Cable
C. DSL
D. Fiber
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is an advantage of using static IP addresses for a business?
A. High availability
B. Scalability for upgrades
C. Simplifies IP management
D. Lower security risk
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following cable connection types is an example of a mini DIN?
A. PS/2
B. BNC
C. DB9
D. RCA
Answer: A

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NO.9 Two drives in a RAID 5 have failed. Which of the following will the technician need to
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A. Replace the failed drives and format the RAID using the quick option.
B. Replace one of the failed drives and repair the RAID using system utilities.
C. Replace one of the failed drives and run the RAID repair.
D. Replace the failed drives and restore the data from backup to the RAID.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following wireless technologies is LEAST likely to be intercepted by a third party?
A. Cellular
B. WiFi
C. NFC
D. Bluetooth
Answer: C

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B. S-Video
C. HDMI
D. DVI-D
Answer: C

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A. Toner cartridge
B. Pickup rollers
C. Duplex unit
D. Imaging drum
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following adapters causes the LEAST amount of signal loss?
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B. DVI to HDMI
C. HDMI to VGA
D. VGA to DVI
Answer: B

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B. LED
C. Plasma
D. CRT
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following regarding the atomic aggregate attribute is TRUE?
A. The atomic aggregate flag is always set if the AS Path information is lost due to aggregation.
B. It is an optional transitive attribute.
C. It is an optional non-transitive attribute.
D. The atomic aggregate flag is always set if the aggregator attribute is set.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Click the exhibit.
Router R6 is a route reflector for clients R1, R2 and R5. Router R5 is configured with a local
preference of 200. On
which routers is "advertise-external* needed for router R6 to receive exactly two distinct routes for
prefix
192.168.1.0/27?
A. On both routers R1and R2.
B. On all routers R1, R2 and R5.
C. On either router R1or R2.
D. On router R5 only.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Click the exhibit.
AS 65100 is advertising 192.168.1.0/27 into BGP. Which of the following AS Paths would the prefix
192.168.1.0/27
contain when viewed on router R8?
A. 65250 (65206 65202) 65100
B. 65200 (65206 65202) 65100
C. (65206 65202)65100
D. 65200 65100
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements regarding BGP control plane convergence is FALSE?
A. Edge neighbor failure is detected by the eBGP session timeout.
B. Core and edge node failure recovery depends on IGP convergence.
C. BGP control plane convergence is independent of number of affected prefixes.
D. Upon BGP control plane convergence, an optimal path is installed in the FIB.
Answer: C

NO.5 What is the default Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR TTL of a BGP advertisement between confederation
members?
A. 255
B. 1
C. 64
D. 32
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click the exhibit.
Considering that both routers C and D are advertising the eBGP learned prefix 10.5.0.0/16 into ISP X,
which of the
following best describes the route advertisement within ISP X?
A. Router C sends the update to routers D, E and F.
B. Router C sends the update to routers E and F only.
C. Router C sends the update to routers A, B, D, E and F.
D. Router C sends the update to routers A, B, E and F.
Answer: C

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NO.7 The user of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR wants to see the effect of changing an import policy
immediately. What is the
best command to force re-evaluation of the import policy with minimal impact?
A. Clear router bgp protocol
B. Clear router bgp neighbor <ip-address> soft-inbound
C. Configure router bgp shutdown
D. Clear router bgp neighbor <ip-address> soft
Answer: B

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NO.8 Click the exhibit.
Router R6 is a route reflector with clients R1, R2 and R5. Router R3 advertises the prefix
192.168.1.0/27 to routers R1,
R2 and R5. How many routes for prefix 192.168.1.0/27 will router R6 receive?
A. 3
B. None
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: A

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NO.9 Click the exhibit.
AS 65550 owns the CIDR block 10.64.0.0/12. Router R4 advertises the aggregate 10.64.0.0/12 to
AS65540. Which of
the following is TRUE regarding the aggregate route advertisement?
A. The aggregator attribute will not be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will not be set.
B. The aggregator attribute will not be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will be set.
C. The aggregator attribute will be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will not be set.
D. The aggregator attribute will be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will be set.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following best describes the relationship between locally configured policies and
the direction of traffic?
A. Both import and export policies affect the way the local AS receives traffic, but not the way it
sends traffic.
B. Import policies affect the way the local AS sends traffic, while export policies affect the way it
receives traffic.
C. Both import and export policies affect the way the local AS sends traffic, but not the way it
receives traffic.
D. Import policies affect the way the local AS receives traffic, while export policies affect the way it
sends traffic.
Answer: B

NO.11 Which of the following AS Paths will match the regular expression "65100."?
A. "65200 65100"
B. "65100 65250 65200"
C. "65100"
D. "65100 65200''
Answer: D

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NO.12 What will happen if an update is received with an unrecognized optional non-transitive
attribute?
A. The router will accept the update and propagate the attribute.
B. The router will accept the update and ignore the attribute.
C. The router will not accept the update and send a notification.
D. The router will accept the update and send a notification.
Answer: B

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NO.1 HOTSPOT
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
Configuration Manager has the client settings configured as shown in the following table.
Policy1, Policy2, and Policy3 are deployed to a collection named Collection1.
You need to configure the clients in Collection1 to have a client policy polling interval of 30 minutes.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Answer:

NO.2 You need to meet the application requirements of App1.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Application Settings of the RDWeb web application.
B. Run the Set-RDRemoteApp cmdlet.
C. Modify the Parameters properties of the App1 RemoteApp program.
D. Run the Set-WebBinding cmdlet.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj215494.aspx

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NO.1 You manage a cloud service that supports features hosted by two instances of an Azure
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You discover that occasional outages cause your service to fail.
You need to minimize the impact of outages to your cloud service.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure the VMs to belong to an Availability Set.
B. Configure Load Balancing on the VMs.
C. Deploy a third instance of the VM.
D. Redeploy the VMs to belong to an Affinity Group.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 You publish an application named MyApp to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You grant
access to the web APIs through OAuth 2.0.
MyApp is generating numerous user consent prompts.
You need to reduce the amount of user consent prompts.
What should you do?
A. Configure SAML 2.0.
B. Enable WS-federation access tokens.
C. Enable Multi-resource refresh tokens.
D. Configure the Open Web Interface for .NET.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
When using the Authorization Code Grant Flow, you can configure the client to call multiple
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client needs to cache, Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) has implemented multi-resource refresh
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NO.1 You have a System Center 2012 Service Manager infrastructure that contains a single server
named SCSM1.
You plan to use a new account named Account1 as the Operational Database Account.
You plan to configure SCSM1 to use Account1 as the logon account for the System Center Data
Access Service.
You need to identify which roles must be assigned to Account1.
Which two roles should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)
A. the Microsoft SQL Server configsvc_users database role
B. the Se rvice Manager Workflows User Role Profile
C. the Microsoft SQL Server db_ddladmin fixed database role
D. the Service Manager Administrators User Role Profile
E. the Microsoft SQL Server sdk_users database role
F. the Service Manager Advanced Operators User Role Profile
Answer: D,E

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Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh495527.aspx suggests that A, E and F are required
(Service Manager Administrators User Role Profile, configsvc_users database role and sdk_users
database role) but the question is asking for just two answers.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh495527.aspx doesn't mention the configsvc_users
database role as below so the answer is A and F.
System Center Configuration service and System Center Data Access service account: This account is
one set of credentials that is used to update and read information in the operational database.
Operations Manager ensures that the credentials used for the
System Center Data Access service and System Center Configuration service account are assigned to
the sdk_user role in the operational database.

NO.2 Your company has a private cloud managed by a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine
Manager (VMM) infrastructure. You add a new SAN to the network, and the you run a storage
discovery. You discover that the SAN resources are not discovered by VMM. You verify that the VMM
server can communicate with the SAN. You need to ensure that VMM can discover the new SAN.
What should you install?
A. the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature
B. a Storage Management Initiative - Specification (SMI-S) provider.
C. a third-party iSCSI initiator
D. the Windows System Resource Manager (WSRM) feature.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg610600.aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/gg610563.aspx

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Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure

• Published: April 7, 2014
• Languages: English, Japanese, Chinese (Simplified), German, French, Portuguese (Brazilian)
• Audiences: IT professionals
• Technology: Windows Server 2012 and Windows Server 2012 R2
• Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE

Manage and maintain a server infrastructure (25–30%)

Plan and implement a highly available enterprise infrastructure (25–30%)

Plan and implement a server virtualization infrastructure (25–30%)

Design and implement identity and access solutions (20–25%)

Instructor-led training

Exam prep video

Self-paced training

Books

Who should take this exam?

This exam is part two of a series of two exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to design, implement, and maintain a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an enterprise scaled, highly virtualized environment. Passing this exam validates a candidate’s ability to the plan, configure, and manage the Windows Server 2012 services, such as identity and access, high availability, and the server infrastructure. Passing this exam along with the other exam confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge necessary for designing, deploying, and maintaining services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment.

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NO.1 Which of the following parameters can be used in the file DB_CONFIG? (Select TWO correct
answers.)
A. set_lg_max
B. set_db_path
C. set_cachepath
D. set_cachesize
E. set_db_type
Answer: A,D

NO.2 In the example below, what is the missing argument that is required to use secret as the
password to authenticate the replication push with a slave directory server?
replica uri=ldaps: //slave.example.com: 636
binddn="cn=Replicator,dc=example,dc=com"
bindmethod=simple ______________=secret
A. credentials
B. secure
C. master
D. password
Answer: A

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60 multiple-choice questions
90 minutes to complete the exam
Each question on the exam tests a skill that applies to both Community Edition v.1.8 and Enterprise Edition v.1.13.
No hard-copy or online materials may be referenced during the exam

PREREQUISITES AND RESOURCES

No prerequisites
We recommend Taking the Managing Your Magento Store course through Magento U as a first step
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D. This cannot be accomplished
E. The 2 existing domains should be left as they are. A 3rd mobility domain should then be created
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